## Review on rotation

The rotation of a vector in a vector space can be done by either rotating the basis vector or the coordinate of the vector. Here, we always use fixed basis for rotation.

For a rigid body, its rotation can be accomplished using Euler rotation, or rotation around an axis.

Whenever a transform preserves the norm of the vector, it is a unitary transform. Rotation preserves the norm and it is a unitary transform, can it can be represented by a unitary matrix. As a unitary matrix, the eigen states are an convenient basis for the vector space.

We will start from 2-D space. Within the 2-D space, we discuss about rotation started by vector and then function. The vector function does not explicitly discussed, but it was touched when discussing on functions. In the course, the eigen state is a key concept, as it is a convenient basis. We skipped the discussion for 3-D space, the connection between 2-D and 3-D space was already discussed in previous post. At the end, we take about direct product space.

In 2-D space. A 2-D vector is rotated by a transform R, and the representation matrix of R has eigen value

$\exp(\pm i \omega)$

and eigenvector

$\displaystyle \hat{e}_\pm = \mp \frac{ \hat{e}_x \pm i \hat{e}_y}{\sqrt{2}}$

If all vector expand as a linear combination of the eigen vector, then the rotation can be done by simply multiplying the eigen value.

Now, for a 2-D function, the rotation is done by changing of coordinate. However, The functional space is also a vector space, such that

1. $a* f_1 + b* f_2$ still in the space,
2. exist of  unit and inverse of addition,
3. the norm can be defined on a suitable domain by $\int |f(x,y)|^2 dxdy$

For example, the two functions $\phi_1(x,y) = x, \phi_2(x,y) = y$, the rotation can be done by a rotational matrix,

$\displaystyle R = \begin{pmatrix} \cos(\omega) & -\sin(\omega) \\ \sin(\omega) & \cos(\omega) \end{pmatrix}$

And, the product $x^2, y^2, xy$ also from a basis. And the rotation on this new basis was induced from the original rotation.

$\displaystyle R_2 = \begin{pmatrix} c^2 & s^2 & -2cs \\ s^2 & c^2 & 2cs \\ cs & -cs & c^2 - s^2 \end{pmatrix}$

where $c = \cos(\omega), s = \sin(\omega)$. The space becomes “3-dimensional” because $xy = yx$, otherwise, it will becomes “4-dimensional”.

The 2-D function can also be expressed in polar coordinate, $f(r, \theta)$, and further decomposed into $g(r) h(\theta)$.

How can we find the eigen function for the angular part?

One way is using an operator that commutes with rotation, so that the eigen function of the operator is also the eigen function of the rotation. an example is the Laplacian.

The eigen function for the 2-D Lapacian is the Fourier series.

Therefore, if we can express the function into a polynomial of $r^n (\exp(i n \theta) , \exp(-i n \theta))$, the rotation of the function is simply multiplied by the rotation matrix.

The eigen function is

$\displaystyle \phi_{nm}(\theta) = e^{i m \theta}, m = \pm$

The D-matrix of rotation (D for Darstellung, representation in German)  $\omega$ is

$D^n_{mm'}(\omega) = \delta_{mm'} e^{i m \omega}$

The delta function of $m, m'$ indicates that a rotation does not mix the spaces. The transformation of the eigen function is

$\displaystyle \phi_{nm}(\theta') = \sum_{nm} \phi_{nm'}(\theta) D^n_{m'm}(\omega)$

for example,

$f(x,y) = x^2 + k y^2$

write in polar coordinate

$\displaystyle f(r, \theta) = r^2 (\cos^2(\theta) + k \sin^2(\theta)) = \frac{r^2}{4} \sum_{nm} a_{nm} \phi_{nm}(\theta)$

where $a_0 = 2 + 2k, a_{2+} = a_{2-} = 1-a, a_{other} = 0$.

The rotation is

$\displaystyle f(r, \theta' = \theta + \omega ) = \frac{r^2}{4} \sum_{nm} a_{nm} \phi_{nm}(\theta) D^n_{mm}(\omega) = \frac{r^2}{4} \sum_{nm} a_{nm} \phi_{nm}(\theta + \omega)$

If we write the rotated function in Cartesian form,

$f(x',y') = x'^2 + k y'^2 = (c^2 + k s^2)x^2 + (s^2 + k c^2)y^2 + 2(k-1) c s x y$

where $c = \cos(\omega), s = \sin(\omega)$.

In 3-D space, the same logic still applicable.

The spherical harmonics $Y_{lm}$ serves as the basis for eigenvalue of $l(l+1)$, eigen spaces for difference $l$ are orthogonal. This is an extension of the 2-D eigen function $\exp(\pm n i \theta)$.

A 3-D function can be expressed in spherical harmonics, and the rotation is simple multiplied with the Wigner D-matrix.

On above, we show an example of higher order rotation induced by product space. I called it the induced space (I am not sure it is the correct name or not), because the space is the same, but the order is higher.

For two particles system, the direct product space is formed by the product of the basis from two distinct space (could be identical space).

Some common direct product spaces are

• combining two spins
• combining two orbital angular momentum
• two particles system

No matter induced space or direct product space, there structure are very similar. In 3-D rotation, the two spaces and the direct product space is related by the Clebsch-Gordon coefficient. While in 2-D rotation, we can see from the above discussion, the coefficient is simply 1.

Lets use 2-D space to show the “induced product” space. For order $n=1$, which is the primary base that contains only $x, y$.

For $n=2$, the space has $x^2, y^2, xy$, but the linear combination $x^2 + y^2$ is unchanged after rotation. Thus, the size of the space reduced $3-1 = 2$.

For $n = 3$, the space has $x^3, y^3, x^2y, xy^3$, this time, the linear combinations $x^3 + xy^2 = x(x^2+y^2)$ behave like $x$ and $y^3 + x^2y$ behave like $y$, thus the size of the space reduce to $4 - 2 = 2$.

For higher order, the total combination of $x^ay^b, a+b = n$ is $C^{n+1}_1 = n+1$, and we can find $n-1$ repeated combinations, thus the size of the irreducible space of order $n$ is always 2.

For 3-D space, the size of combination of $x^ay^bz^c, a + b+ c = n$ is $C^{n+2}_2 = (n+1)(n+2)/2$. We can find $n(n-1)/2$ repeated combination, thus, the size of the irreducible  space of order $n$ is always $2n+1$.

## some work done

recently, i am working on 3 things, both are calculation.

the 1st thing is a concrete foundation of microwave inducted optical nuclear polarization theory, which is the theory that my experiment is current using. i found some papers talk on the theoretical treatment on this subject. however, they are all start from some un-stated assumptions, for example, they are started with the Hamiltonian of hyperfine interaction, without state clear where the term comes from. i guess it is very elementary.  nevertheless, different papers may use different Hamiltonians. moreover, some of the mathematics techniques or steps were skipped and directly jump to result. Thus. that is my motivation on building a concrete theory, based on dipole -magnetic field interaction.

when i finished the hyperfine interaction, i have to apply a magnetic field and it cause a Zeemen splitting of energy level. and the Zeeman effect depends on the strength of the magnetic field. they are called strong field, intermedia field and weak field. in different field strength, the origina Hamiltonian may or may not be treated as a perturbation. Thus, i have to know the magnitude of the hyperfine structure. at the point, i come up with in-consistance value that cannot smoothy translate from weak field to intermedia field and strong field.

So, i restudy the atomic theory on Hydrogen atom. Start from Bohr model, fine structure to hyperfine structure and calculated the energy level numerically, so that i can get a full and complete picture on this matter. then i can now compare the magnetic field strength. it turns out that it is not that clear when is weak or strong, because it is depends on the total vale of the Hamiltonian, not the coefficient. Thus, for higher orbital angular momentum, a very small magnetic field can be treated as strong field, coz it already large enough to break the coupling. i am still working on the hyperfine Zeeman effect.

Meanwhile, my professor asked me to calculate the filling factor of the sample and NMR coil. the NMR signal strength depends on the geometry of the  coil and sample. and this geometric factor is called filling factor. it is a good name, i thing, since the maximum value is that the sample completely filled the coil. In order to calculated this, i parallel calculated the magnetic field generated by a cylindrical uniformly magnetized rod and the magnetic induction due to multiple from a single coil. the far field of the rod is done and basically, it is dipole, but the near field is complicated, the multiple terms appear and they are convergence slowly.

that’s why i don’t have post for 2 weeks.

## a review on Hydrogen’s atomic structure

I found that most of the book only talk part of it or present it separately. Now, I am going to treat it at 1 place. And I will give numerical value as well. the following context is on SI unit.

a very central idea when writing down the state quantum number is, is it a good quantum number? a good quantum number means that its operator commute with the Hamiltonian. and the eigenstate states are stationary or the invariant of motion. the prove on the commutation relation will be on some post later. i don’t want to make this post too long, and with hyperlink, it is more reader-friendly. since somebody may like to go deeper, down to the cornerstone.  but some may like to have a general review.

the Hamiltonian of a isolated hydrogen atom is given by fews terms, deceasing by their strength.

$H = H_{Coul} + H_{K.E.} + H_{Rel} + H_{Darwin} + H_{s-0} + H_{i-j} + H_{lamb} + H_{vol} + O$

the Hamiltonian can be separated into 3 classes.

__________________________________________________________

## Bohr model

$H_{Coul} = - \left(\frac {e^2}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \right) \frac {1}{r}$

is the Coulomb potential, which dominate the energy. recalled that the ground state energy is -13.6 eV. and it is equal to half of the Coulomb potential energy, thus, the energy is about 27.2 eV, for ground state.

$H_{K.E.} = \frac {P^2}{ 2 m}$

is the non-relativistic kinetic energy, it magnitude is half of the Coulomb potential, so, it is 13.6 eV, for ground state.

comment on this level

this 2 terms are consider in the Bohr model, the quantum number, which describe the state of the quantum state, are

$n$ = principle number. the energy level.

$l$ = orbital angular momentum. this give the degeneracy of each energy level.

$m_l$ = magnetic angular momentum.

it is reasonable to have 3 parameters to describe a state of electron. each parameter gives 1 degree of freedom. and a electron in space have 3. thus, change of basis will not change the degree of freedom. The mathematic for these are good quantum number and the eigenstate $\left| n, l, m_l \right>$ is invariant of motion, will be explain in later post. But it is very easy to understand why the angular momentum is invariant, since the electron is under a central force, no torque on it. and the magnetic angular momentum is an invariant can also been understood by there is no magnetic field.

the principle quantum number $n$ is an invariance. because it is the eigenstate state of the principle Hamiltonian( the total Hamiltonian )!

the center of mass also introduced to make more correct result prediction on energy level. but it is just minor and not much new physics in it.

## Fine structure

$H_{Rel} = - \frac{1}{8} \frac{P^4}{m^3 c^2}$

is the 1st order correction of the relativistic kinetic energy. from $K.E. = E - mc^2 = \sqrt { p^2 c^2 + m^2c^4} - mc^2$, the zero-order term is the non-relativistic kinetic energy. the 1st order therm is the in here. the magnitude is about $1.8 \times 10^{-4} eV$. ( the order has to be recalculate, i think i am wrong. )

$H_{Darwin} = \frac{\hbar^{2}}{8m_{e}^{2}c^{2}}4\pi\left(\frac{Ze^2}{4\pi \epsilon_{0}}\right)\delta^{3}\left(\vec r\right)$

is the Darwin-term. this term is result from the zitterbewegung, or rapid quantum oscillations of the electron. it is interesting that this term only affect the S-orbit. To understand it require Quantization of electromagnetic field, which i don’t know. the magnitude of this term is about $10^{-3} eV$

$H_{s-o} = \left(\frac{Ze^2}{4\pi \epsilon_{0}}\right)\left(\frac{1}{2m_{e}^{2}c^{2}}\right)\frac{1}{r^3} L \cdot S$

is the Spin-Orbital coupling term. this express the magnetic field generated by the proton while it orbiting around the electron when taking electron’s moving frame. the magnitude of this term is about $10^{-4} eV$

comment on this level

this fine structure was explained by P.M.Dirac on the Dirac equation. The Dirac equation found that the spin was automatically come out due to special relativistic effect. the quantum number in this stage are

$n$ = principle quantum number does not affected.

$l$ = orbital angular momentum.

$m_l$ = magnetic total angular momentum.

$s$ = spin angular momentum. since s is always half for electron, we usually omit it. since it does not give any degree of freedom.

$m_s$ = magnetic total angular momentum.

at this stage, the state can be stated by $\left| n, l, m_l, m_s \right>$, which shown all the degree of freedom an electron can possible have.

However, $L_z$ is no longer a good quantum number. it does not commute with the Hamiltonian. so, $m_l$ does not be the eigenstate anymore. the total angular momentum was introduced $J = L + S$ . and $J^2$ and $J_z$ commute with the Hamiltonian.  therefore,

$j$ = total angular momentum.

$m_j$ = magnetic total angular momentum.

an eigenstate can be stated as $\left| n, l, s, j, m_j \right>$. in spectroscopy, we denote it as $^{2 s+1} L _j$, where $L$ is the spectroscopy notation for $l$.

there are 5 degrees of freedom, but in fact, s always half, so, there are only 4 real degree of freedom, which is imposed by the spin ( can up and down).  the reason for stating the s in the eigenstate is for general discussion. when there are 2 electrons, s can be different and this is 1 degree of freedom.

## Hyperfine Structure

$H_{i-j} = \alpha I \cdot J$

is the nuclear spin- electron total angular momentum coupling. the coefficient of this term, i don’t know. Sorry. the nuclear has spin, and this spin react with the magnetic field generate by the electron. the magnitude is $10^{-5}$

$H_{lamb}$

is the lamb shift, which also only affect the S-orbit.the magnitude is $10^{-6}$

comment on this level

the hyperfine structure always makes alot questions in my mind. the immediate question is why not separate the orbital angular momentum and the electron spin angular momentum? why they first combined together, then interact with the nuclear spin?

may be i open another post to talk about.

The quantum number are:

$n$ = principle quantum number

$l$ = orbital angular momentum

$s$ = electron spin angular momentum.

$j$ = spin-orbital angular momentum of electron.

$i$ = nuclear spin. for hydrogen, it is half.

$f$ = total angular momentum

$m_f$ = total magnetic angular momentum

a quantum state is $\left| n, l, s, j,i, f , m_f \right>$. but since the s and i are always a half. so, the total degree of freedom will be 5. the nuclear spin added 1 on it.

## Smaller Structure

$H_{vol}$

this term is for the volume shift. the magnitude is $10^{-10}$.

in diagram:

## Euler angle

with the help of the post changing frame, we are now good to use the Euler angle.

recall

$V_R = R_n ( - \theta ) V_S$

for the rotating frame axis is rotating positive with the static frame.

the Euler angle is performed on 3 steps

1. rotate on $Z_S$, the z-axis with $\alpha$, which is $R_{zS} ( - \alpha )$. the x-axis and the y-axis is now different, we notate this frame with a 1 .
2. rotate on $Y_1$, the y-axis in the 1- frame  by angle $\beta$, which is $R_{y1} ( - \beta )$. the new axis is notated by 2.
3. rotate on $Z_2$, the z-axis in the 2-frame by angle $\gamma$, which is $R_{z2} ( - \gamma )$. the new axis is notated by R.

The rotating frame is related with the static frame by:

$V_R = R_{z2} ( - \gamma ) R_{y1} ( - \beta ) R_{zS} ( - \alpha ) V_S$

or

$R_R ( \alpha, \beta, \gamma ) =$$R_{z2} ( - \gamma )$ $R_{y1} ( - \beta )$ $R_{zS} ( - \alpha )$

for each rotation is on a new frame, the computation will be ugly, since, after each rotation, we have to use the rotation matrix in new coordinate.

There is another representation, notice that:

$R_{y1} ( -\beta ) =$ $R_{zS} ( - \alpha )$ $R_{yS} ( - \beta )$ $R_{zS} ( \alpha)$

which mean, the rotating on y1 -axis by $\beta$ is equal to rotate it back to $Y_S$  on zS -axis and rotated it by $\beta$ on yS – axis, then rotate back the $Y_S$ to $Y_1$ on zS – axis.

i use a and b for the axis between the transform.

and we have it for the z2-axis.

$R_{z2} ( -\gamma ) = R_{y1} ( - \beta ) R_{z1} ( - \gamma ) R_{y1} ( \beta )$

by using these 2 equation and notice that the z1-axis is equal to zS-axis.

$R_R ( \alpha , \beta, \gamma ) = R_{zS} ( - \alpha ) R_{yS} (- \beta ) R_{zS} ( - \gamma )$

which act only on the the same frame.

## detail treatment on Larmor Precession and Rabi Resonance

a treatment on Larmor Precession and Rabi resonance

the pdf is a work on this topic. it goes through Larmor Precession and give example on spin-½ and spin-1 system.

then it introduce Density matrix and gives some example.

The Rabi resonance was treated by rotating frame method and using density matrix on discussion.

the last topic is on the relaxation.

the purpose of study it extensively, is the understanding on NMR.

the NMR signal is the transverse component of the magnetization.