## Changing of frame II

Few things have to say in advance.

1. A Vector is NOT its coordinate
2. A vector can only be coordinated when there is a frame.
3. A frame is a set of “reference” vectors, which span the whole space. Those reference vectors are called basis of a frame.
4. a transformation is on a vector or its coordinate. And it can be represented by a matrix.
5. A Matrix should act on a coordinate or basis, but not a vector.

where

$\hat{\alpha} = \begin {pmatrix} \hat{\alpha_1} \\ . \\ \hat{\alpha_n} \end{pmatrix}$ is the column vector of  basis reference vector.

$\vec{u_{\alpha}}$ is the coordinate column vector in $\alpha$ basis.

$\vec{U}$ is the vector in space

$\vec{V}$ is the transformed vector in space.

$G$ and $H$ are the matrix of transform.

$G \cdot H \cdot G^{-1}$ has the same meaning of $H$, only the matrix representation of the transform is different due to different basis.

the Euler’s rotation can be illustrated by series of the diagram. each rotation of frame can be made by each $G$ . but when doing real calculation, after we apply the matrix G  on the coordinate, the basis changed. when we using the fact that  a matrix can be regard as a frame transform or vector transform. we have follow:

This diagram can extend to any series of frame rotation. and the $V_s \rightarrow X_s \rightarrow V_2 \rightarrow V_s$ triangle just demonstrate how 2 steps frame transform can be reduced to the vector transform in same frame.

i finally feel that i understand Euler angle and changing of frame fully. :D

HERE is a note on vector transform and frame transform.

## Euler angle

with the help of the post changing frame, we are now good to use the Euler angle.

recall

$V_R = R_n ( - \theta ) V_S$

for the rotating frame axis is rotating positive with the static frame.

the Euler angle is performed on 3 steps

1. rotate on $Z_S$, the z-axis with $\alpha$, which is $R_{zS} ( - \alpha )$. the x-axis and the y-axis is now different, we notate this frame with a 1 .
2. rotate on $Y_1$, the y-axis in the 1- frame  by angle $\beta$, which is $R_{y1} ( - \beta )$. the new axis is notated by 2.
3. rotate on $Z_2$, the z-axis in the 2-frame by angle $\gamma$, which is $R_{z2} ( - \gamma )$. the new axis is notated by R.

The rotating frame is related with the static frame by:

$V_R = R_{z2} ( - \gamma ) R_{y1} ( - \beta ) R_{zS} ( - \alpha ) V_S$

or

$R_R ( \alpha, \beta, \gamma ) =$$R_{zS} ( - \gamma )$ $R_{y1} ( - \beta )$ $R_{zS} ( - \alpha )$

for each rotation is on a new frame, the computation will be ugly, since, after each rotation, we have to use the rotation matrix in new coordinate.

There is another representation, notice that:

$R_{y1} ( -\beta ) =$ $R_{zS} ( - \alpha )$ $R_{yS} ( - \beta )$ $R_{zS} ( \alpha)$

which mean, the rotating on y1 -axis by $\beta$ is equal to rotate it back to $Y_S$  on zS -axis and rotated it by $\beta$ on yS – axis, then rotate back the $Y_S$ to $Y_1$ on zS – axis.

i use a and b for the axis between the transform.

and we have it for the z2-axis.

$R_{z2} ( -\gamma ) = R_{y1} ( - \beta ) R_{z1} ( - \gamma ) R_{y1} ( \beta )$

by using these 2 equation and notice that the z1-axis is equal to zS-axis.

$R_R ( \alpha , \beta, \gamma ) = R_{zS} ( - \alpha ) R_{yS} (- \beta ) R_{zS} ( - \gamma )$

which act only on the the same frame.

## Rotation operator on x, y in Matrix form

in the J.J. Sakurai’s book, the formalism of finding the matrix representation of rotation operator is general, but quite long and detail. A general treatment is necessary for understanding the topic, but i think, who will use arbitrary rotation? so,  here i give a simple and direct calculation on $J_x$ and $J_y$, for use-ready.

the method is diagonalization. because we already knew the matrix form of the angular momentum operator. which is not given in J.J.Sakurai’s book.

recall that the formalism:

$f(M) = P \cdot f(D) \cdot P^{-1}$

since $D$ is diagonal matrix, thus

$f(D)_{ij} = f(\lambda_i) \delta_{ij}$

so, we have to find out the $P$ for $J_x$ and $J_y$.

i am still trying to obtain the equation, but…..

anyway, using program can solve it without headache. ( but typing Latex is )here are some result.

$J_x(\frac{1}{2}) = \begin {pmatrix} cos \left( \frac {\theta}{2} \right) & - i sin \left( \frac{\theta}{2} \right) \\ -i sin ( \frac{\theta}{2} ) & cos (\frac {\theta}{2}) \end {pmatrix}$

$J_y(\frac{1}{2}) = \begin {pmatrix} cos \left( \frac {\theta}{2} \right) & - sin ( \frac{\theta}{2} ) \\ sin ( \frac{\theta}{2} ) & cos (\frac {\theta}{2}) \end {pmatrix}$

## detail treatment on Larmor Precession and Rabi Resonance

a treatment on Larmor Precession and Rabi resonance

the pdf is a work on this topic. it goes through Larmor Precession and give example on spin-½ and spin-1 system.

then it introduce Density matrix and gives some example.

The Rabi resonance was treated by rotating frame method and using density matrix on discussion.

the last topic is on the relaxation.

the purpose of study it extensively, is the understanding on NMR.

the NMR signal is the transverse component of the magnetization.

## on angular momentum adding & rotation operator

the angular momentum has 2 kinds – orbital angular momentum $L$, which is caused by a charged particle executing orbital motion, since there are 3 dimension space. and spin $S$, which is an internal degree of freedom to let particle “orbiting” at there.

thus, a general quantum state for a particle should not just for the spatial part and the time part. but also the spin, since a complete state should contains all degree of freedom.

$\left| \Psi \right> = \left| x,t \right> \bigotimes \left| s \right>$

when we “add” the orbital angular momentum and the spin together, actually, we are doing:

$J = L \bigotimes 1 + 1 \bigotimes S$

where the 1 with L is the identity of the spin-space and the 1 with S is the identity of the 3-D space.

the above was discussed on J.J. Sakurai’s book.

the mathematics of $L$ and $S$ are completely the same at rotation operator.

$R_J (\theta) = Exp( - \frac {i}{\hbar} \theta J)$

where $J$ can be either $L$ or $S$.

the $L$ can only have effect on spatial state while $S$ can only have effect on the spin-state. i.e:

$R_L(\theta) \left| s \right> = \left| s\right>$

$R_S(\theta) \left| x \right> = \left| x\right>$

the $L_z$ can only have integral value but $S_z$ can be both half-integral and integral. the half-integral value of $Sz$ makes the spin-state have to rotate 2 cycles in order to be the same again.

thus, if the different of $L$ and $S$ is just man-made. The degree of freedom in the spin-space is actually by some real geometry on higher dimension. and actually, the orbital angular momentum can change the spin state:

$L \left| s \right> = \left | s' \right > = c \left| s \right>$

but the effect is so small and

$R_L (\theta) \left| s\right > = Exp( - \frac {i}{\hbar} \theta c )\left| s \right>$

but the c is very small, but if we can rotate the state for a very large angle, the effect of it can be seen by compare to the rotation by spin.

$\left < R_L(\omega t) + R_S(\omega t) \right> = 2 ( 1+ cos ( \omega ( c -1 ) t)$

the experiment can be done as follow. we apply a rotating magnetic field at the same frequency as the Larmor frequency. at a very low temperature, the spin was isolated and $T_1$ and $T_2$ is equal to $\infty$. the different in the c will come up at very long time measurement and it exhibit a interference pattern.

if $c$ is a complex number, it will cause a decay, and it will be reflected in the interference pattern.

if we find out this c, then we can reveal the other spacial dimension!

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the problem is. How can we act the orbital angular momentum on the spin with out the effect of spin angular momentum? since L and S always coupled.

one possibility is make the S zero. in the system of electron and positron. the total spin is zero.

another possibility is act the S on the spatial part. and this will change the energy level.

__________________________________

an more fundamental problem is, why L and S commute? the possible of writing this

$\left| \Psi \right> = \left| x,t \right> \bigotimes \left| s \right>$

is due to the operators are commute to each other. by why?

if we break down the L in to position operator x and momentum operator p, the question becomes, why x and S commute or p and S commute?

$[x,S]=0 ?$

$[p,S]=0 ?$

$[p_x, S_y] \ne 0 ?$

i will prove it later.

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another problem is, how to evaluate the Poisson bracket? since L and S is not same dimension. may be we can write the eigenket in vector form:

$\begin {pmatrix} \left|x, t \right> \\ \left|s\right> \end {pmatrix}$

i am not sure.

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For any vector operator, it must satisfy following equation, due to rotation symmetry.

$[V_i, J_j] = i \hbar V_k$   run in cyclic

Thus,

where J is rotation operator. but i am not sure is it restricted to real space rotation. any way, spin is a vector operator, thus

$latex [S_x, L_y] = i \hbar S_z = – [S_y, L_x]$

so, L, S is not commute.

## Larmor Precession (quick)

Magnetic moment ($\mu$) :

this is a magnet by angular momentum of charge or spin. its value is:

$\mu = \gamma J$

where $J$ is angular momentum, and $\gamma$ is the gyromagnetic rato

$\gamma = g \mu_B$

Notice that we are using natural unit.

the g is the g-factor is a dimensionless number, which reflect the environment of the spin, for orbital angular momentum, g = 1.

$\mu_B$ is Bohr magneton, which is equal to

$\mu_B = \frac {e} {2 m}$ for positron

since different particle has different mass, their Bohr magneton value are different. electron is the lightest particle, so, it has largest value on Bohr magneton.

Larmor frequency:

When applied a magnetic field on a magnetic moment, the field will cause the moment precess around the axis of the field. the precession frequency is called Larmor frequency.

the precession can be understood in classical way or QM way.

Classical way:

the change of angular momentum is equal to the applied torque. and the torque is equal to the magnetic moment  cross product with the magnetic field. when in classical frame, the angular momentum, magnetic moment, and magnetic field are ordinary vector.

$\vec {\Gamma}= \frac { d \vec{J}}{dt} = \vec{\mu} \times \vec{B} = \gamma \vec {J} \times \vec{B}$

solving gives the procession frequency is :

$\omega = - \gamma B$

the minus sign is very important, it indicated that the J is precessing by right hand rule when $\omega >0$.

QM way:

The Tim dependent Schrödinger equation (TDSE) is :

$i \frac {d}{d t} \left| \Psi\right> = H \left|\Psi\right>$

H is the Hamiltonian, for the magnetic field is pointing along the z-axis.

$H = -\mu \cdot B = - \gamma J\cdot B = -gamma B J_z = \omega J_z$

the solution is

$\left|\Psi(t) \right> = Exp( - i \omega t J_z) \left| \Psi(0) \right>$

Thus, in QM point of view, the state does not “rotate” but only a phase change.

However, the rotation operator on z-axis is

$R_z ( \theta ) = Exp( - i \frac {\theta}{\hbar} J_z )$

Thus, the solution can be rewritten as:

$\left|\Psi (t)\right> = R_z( \omega t) \left|\Psi(0)\right>$

That makes great analogy on rotation on a real vector.